KVS Pedagogy - Day 1: Pedagogy Basics & Human Development

Time Allotment: 1.5 hours

Welcome to Day 1! We'll start with the fundamentals of pedagogy and the principles of human development. These concepts are the bedrock of all teaching methods.

Section 1: Pedagogy Basics & Principles of Development

Study Material Details

• Growth vs. Development:
  • Growth: Primarily a **quantitative** process. It refers to physical increase in size, height, weight, etc. It stops at a certain age.
  • Development: A **qualitative** and continuous process. It refers to changes in function, organization, and maturity across all domains (physical, cognitive, social, emotional). It continues throughout life.
• Principles of Development:
  • 1. Development is continuous: It starts at conception and ends at death.
  • 2. Development is sequential: It follows an orderly pattern (e.g., a child stands before they walk).
  • 3. Development proceeds from general to specific: Children first use their whole body to reach for an object, and later, just their hands.
  • 4. Development is a product of maturation and learning: A child's readiness (maturation) and their experiences (learning) interact to drive development.
  • 5. Development is individualistic: Every child develops at their own pace.

Live Classroom Example: A Grade 1 teacher observes that a child is struggling to hold a pencil correctly, even after a month of practice. This could be due to a lack of **maturation**, as the child's small motor skills may not yet be ready. The teacher understands that development is **individualistic** and provides the child with larger crayons for practice, which is a key principle of effective teaching.

Section 2: Stages of Development

Study Material Details

While development is continuous, it is often categorized into stages for better understanding. A teacher must understand these stages to provide age-appropriate learning.

• 1. Infancy (0-2 years):
  • Focus on sensory and motor skills.
  • Develops object permanence (Piaget).
• 2. Early Childhood (2-6 years):
  • Focus on language acquisition and symbolic thought.
  • Characterized by 'egocentrism' (Piaget).
• 3. Later Childhood (6-12 years):
  • 'School age' where social skills and logical thought develop.
  • Able to understand conservation and perform concrete operations.
• 4. Adolescence (12-18 years):
  • Period of significant physical and emotional change.
  • Search for identity is a key psychosocial task (Erikson).
  • Develops abstract and hypothetical thinking.

Section 3: Influences on Development (Nature vs. Nurture)

Study Material Details

• Heredity (Nature): The biological and genetic factors passed down from parents (e.g., eye color, potential for height).
• Environment (Nurture): The external factors that influence development (e.g., family, school, peers, nutrition).

Conclusion: Modern pedagogy recognizes that development is a complex interaction between both heredity and environment. It is not an either/or situation. A child's genetic potential (nature) can be significantly enhanced or inhibited by their environment (nurture).

Live Classroom Example: A child may have a genetic predisposition for a high IQ (heredity). However, if they grow up in a stimulating home and school environment with good nutrition (environment), that potential is more likely to be fully realized. A teacher's role is to provide a rich learning environment (nurture) to help all students reach their full potential.

Activity for Day 1

Quick Check:

• What is the key difference between Growth and Development?
• Which principle of development explains why a child learns to stand before they learn to run?
• Give one example of how 'Heredity' and 'Environment' interact to influence a child's development.

Teacher's Note: Always remember that understanding these foundational principles is the first step to becoming a truly child-centric teacher. Keep these in mind as we move on to more detailed theories.

magnetic effect of electric current class 10 notes in hindi click here

Magnetic effect of electric current Bharti Bhawan( विद्युत धारा का चुंबकीय प्रभाव भारती भवन)

                                      Class-X

1. 1.Image formed by convex mirror is

         a. Real and erect

         b. Real and inverted

         c. Virtual and erect

         d. Virtual and inverted

2. Speed of light in vacuum 

1. 3 X  10^10 m/s

2. 2 X 10^8 km/h

3. 3 X 10^8 m/s

4. 1.5 X 10^4 km/s

3. An object is placed at a distance of 0.25 m

in front of a plane mirror. The distance between the object and image will be

(a) 0.25 m

(b) 1.0 m

(c) 0.5 m

(d) 0.125 m

4. The angle of incidence for a ray of light having zero reflection angle is

(a) 0

(b) 30°

(c) 45°

(d) 90°

5. For a real object, which of the following can produce a real image?

(a) Plane mirror

(b) Concave mirror

(c) Concave lens

(d) Convex mirror

6. a mirror forms a virtual image of an object

a. it must be a concave mirror

b. it must be a convex mirror

c. plane mirror

d. it may be any of the mirror mentioned above

7. Which of the following mirror is used by a dentist to examine a small cavity?

(a) Convex mirror

(b) Plane mirror

(c) Concave mirror

(d) Combination of convex and concave mirror

 8.A concave mirror gives real, inverted and same size image if the object is placed

         a. At F

         b. At infinity

         c. At C

         d. Beyond C

 

   9.The radius of curvature of a mirror is 20cm the focal length is

         a. 20cm

         b. 10cm

         c. 40cm

         d. 5cm

 

 

10. Image formed by plane mirror is

         a. Real and erect

         b. Real and inverted

         c. Virtual and erect

         d. Virtual and inverted

 

11.Under which of the following conditions a concave mirror can form an image larger than the actual object?

(a) When the object is kept at a distance equal to its radius of curvature

(b) When object is kept at a distance less than its focal length

(c) When object is placed between the focus and centre of curvature

(d) When object is kept at a distance greater than its radius of curvature

 

12.Rays from Sun converge at a point 15 cm in front of a concave mirror. Where should an object be placed so that size of its image is equal to the size of the object?

(a) 15 cm in front of the mirror

(b) 30 cm in front of the mirror

(c) between 15 cm and and 30 cm in front of the mirror

(d) more than 30 cm in front of the mirror

 

13.The laws of reflection hold good for

(a) plane mirror only

(b) concave mirror only

(c) convex mirror only

(d) all mirrors irrespective of their shape

 

 

14.Which of the following ray diagrams is correct for the ray of light incident on a concave mirror as shown in figure?

 

15.Light travel fastest in

(a) Water

(b) Air

(c) Glass

(d) Diamond

                                       Class-XII 

1. The surface considered for Gauss’s law is called

(a) Closed surface

(b) Spherical surface

(c) Gaussian surface

(d) Plane surface

2. Which of the following statements is not true about Gauss’s law?

(a) Gauss’s law is true for any closed surface.

(b) The term q on the right side side of Gauss’s law includes the sum of all charges enclosed by the surface.

(c) Gauss’s law is not much useful in calculating electrostatic field when the system has some symmetry.

(d) Gauss’s law is based on the inverse square dependence on distance contained in the coulomb’s law

3. Electric field lines provide information about

(a) field strength

(b) direction

(c) nature of charge

(d) all of these

4. Which of the following figures represent the electric field lines due to a single negative charge?

5. The SI unit of electric flux is

(a) N C-1 m-2

(b) N C m-2

(c) N C-2 m2

(d) N C-1 m2

6.If an electric dipole is kept in a uniform electric field then resultant electric force on it is :

(a) always zero

(b) never zero

(c) depend upon capacity of dipole

(d) None

7.The number of electron-taken out from a body to produce 1 coulomb of charge will be :

(a) 6.25 × 1018

(b) 625 × 1018

(c) 6.023 × 1023

(d) None

8.Coulomb’s law written as

F = kq1q2/r^2

where ε0 is the permitivity of free space. The SI units of ε0 will be:

(a) N-1m-2C-2

(b) Nm-2C2

(c) N-1m-2C9.

(d) Nm-2C2

9.The SI units of electric dipole moment are:

(a) C

(b) Cm-1

(c) Cm

(d) Nm-1

10.Quantisation of charge implies:

(a) Charge does not exist

(b) Charge exists on particles

(c) There is a minimum permissible magnitude of charge

(d) Charge can’t be created

11.The minimum amount of charge observed so far is:

(a) 1 C

(b) 4.8 × 1-13 C

(c) 1.6 × 10-19 C

(d) 1.6 × 1019 C

12. When a dipole of moment  P is placed in uniform electric field   E, then the torque acting on the dipole i

13.The conservation of electric charge implies that:

(a) Charge can’t be created

(b) Charge can’t be destroyed

(c) The number of charged particle in the universe is constant

(d) Simultaneous creation of equal and opposite charges is permissible

14. In a parallel plate capacitor, the capacity increases if

(a) area of the plate is decreased.

(b) distance between the plates increases.

(c) area of the plate is increased.

(d) dielectric constantly decreases.

15.. Two spherical conductors each of capacity C are charged to potential V and -V. These are then connected by means of a fine wire. The loss of energy is

(a) zero

(b) ½ CV2

(c) CV2

(d) 2 CV2

16.The unit of intensity of electric field is :

(a) metre/volt

(b) Joule/newton

(c) Coulomb/newton

(d) Newton/coulomb

                                  Class- VII

Question 1.

Bile is produced in

(a) Gall bladder

(b) Blood

(c) Liver

(d) Spleen

Question 2.

The false feet of Amoeba are used for:

(a) movement only

(b) capture of food only

(c) capture of food and movement

(d) exchange of gases only

Question 3

The finger-like outgrowths of Amoeba helps to ingest food. However, the finger-like outgrowths of human intestine helps to:

(a) digest the fatty food substances

(b) make the food soluble

(c) absorb the digested food

(d) absorb the undigested food

Question 4.

The main function of the lacteals of intestine is the absorption of

(a) amino acids

(b) glucose and vitamins

(c) lactic acid

(d) fatty acids and glycerol

Question 5.

Which is not digested by human?

(a) Protein

(b) Fats

(c) Glucose

(d) Cellulose

Question 6.

Read carefully the terms given below. Which of the following set is the correct combination of organs that do not carry out any digestive functions?

(a) Oesophagus, Large Intestine, Rectum

(b) Buccal Cavity, Oesophagus, Rectum

(c) Buccal Cavity, Oesophagus, Large Intestine

(d) Small Intestine, Large Intestine, Rectum

Question 7.

The acid present in the stomach:

(a) kills the harmful bacterial that may enter along with the food.

(b) protects the stomach lining from harmful substances.

(c) digests starch into simpler sugars.

(d) both a and c

.Question 8

The enzymes predsent in the saliva convert:

(a) fats into fatty acids and glycerol

(b) starch into simple sugars

(c) proteins into amino acids

(d) complex sugars into simple sugars

.Question 9

The component of food which is complex is

(a) protein

(b) carbohydrate

(c) fat

(d) all of these

Question 10.

The breakdown of complex components of food into simpler substances is called

(a) ingestion

(b) egestion

(c) assimilation

(d) digestion

Question 11.

The way of taking food by bees is

(a) swallowing

(b) sucking

(c) filtering

(d) none of these

Question 12.

From where do we take in food?

(a) Anus

(b) Mouth

(c) Stomach

(d) Oesophagus

Question 13.

The process of taking food in the body is known as

(a) egestion

(b) ingestion

(c) digestion

(d) assimilation

Question 14.

The glands of mouth which secrete saliva are

(a) salivary glands

(b) pancreas

(c) lungs

(d) liver

Question 15.

Starch is broken down into sugars by the action of

(a) saliva

(b) bile juice

(c) hydrochloric acid

(d) all of these

II

Question 1.

Which one of the following is not a breed of sheep?

(a) Murrah

(b) Marwari

(c) Lohi

(d) Nali

Question 2.

What is the scientific name of mulberry tree?

(a) Magnifera indica

(b) Morus alba

(c) Desmodium girence

(d) None of these

Question 3.

Silk is derived from

(a) cocoon

(b) pupa

(c) egg

(d) moth

Question 4.

Selective breeding is a process of

(a) selecting the offspring with desired properties.

(b) selecting the parents with desired properties.

(c) selecting an area for breeding.

(d) selecting fine hair for good quality wool.

Question 5.

The general process that takes place at a sheep shearing shed is:

(a) removal of fleece.

(b) separating hair of different textures.

(c) washing of sheep fibre to remove grease.

(d) rolling of sheep fibre into yam.

Question 6.

The rearing of silkworms for obtaining silk is called:

(a) cocoon

(b) silk

(c) sericulture

(d) silviculture

Question 7.

Which of the following is not a type of silk?

(a) Mulberry silk

(b) Tassar silk

(c) Mooga silk

(d) Moth silk

Question 8.

Paheli wanted to buy a gift made of animal fibre obtained without killing the animal. Which of the following would be the right gift for her to buy?

(a) Woollen shawl

(b) Silk scarf

(c) Animal fur cap

(d) Leather jacket

Question 9.

Silk fibre is obtained from:

(a) fleece of sheep

(b) cotton ball

(c) cocoon

(d) shiny jute stalk

Question 10.

Wool fibre cannot be obtained from which of the following?

(a) Goat

(b) Llama

(c) Alpaca

(d) Moth

Question 11.

Which one of the following is a wool-yielding animal?

(a) Sheep

(b) Angora goat

(c) Camel

(d) All of these

Question 12.

Which of the following is not a wool-yielding animal?

(a) Goat

(b) Yak

(c) Sheep

(d) None of these

Question 13.

Yak wool is common in

(a) india

(b) america

(c) tibet

(d) china

Question 14.

The caterpillars of silkworms feed on

(a) peepal leaves

(b) grass

(c) rose leaves

(d) mulberry leaves

Question 15.

Silkworms secrete fibre made of

(a) fat

(b) cellulose

(c) protein

(d) starch